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since 1985 practicing as advocate in both civil & criminal laws

Saturday, August 7, 2021

running a Tea stall for the last ten years by raising a tin shed (bunk) adjacent to the Bus Stop at Sangam Road and eking out his livelihood. He is a land less poor person. While so the 2nd respondent issued the impugned notice dated 31.07.2021 to the petitioner stating that the Gram Panchayat land was occupied and the shop was constructed, hence vacate the same otherwise action will be initiated under Section 98 of A.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1984.=petitioner also gave a representation to the 2nd respondent on 03.08.2021 informing that the tea shop is situated leaving the road margin and margin from the Bus stop also, he is paying taxes to the 2nd respondent and it is not obstructing any passage or required for any road widening purpose. Similar representation is given to the 3rd and 4th respondents on 04.08.2021. But in vain.-respondent is directed to consider and dispose of the representation of the petitioner dated 03.08.2021 within four (4) weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this Order. Till such disposal of the said representation of the petitioner by the 2 nd respondent there shall not be any dispossession of the petitioner from running the said Tea stall. Any dispossession of the petitioner and removal of the said tea stall shall be in accordance with law.


AP HIGH COURT ; AMARAVATHI;

THE HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE B. KRISHNA MOHAN

WRIT PETITION NO.16503 of 2021

ORDER:

The learned Assistant Government Pleader takes notice for

Respondents No.1 and 3.

2. Heard the learned counsel for the petitioner and the learned

Assistant Government Pleader for R1 and R3.

3. It is the case of the petitioner that the petitioner is running a

Tea stall for the last ten years by raising a tin shed (bunk) adjacent to

the Bus Stop at Sangam Road and eking out his livelihood. He is a

land less poor person. While so the 2nd respondent issued the

impugned notice dated 31.07.2021 to the petitioner stating that the

Gram Panchayat land was occupied and the shop was constructed,

hence vacate the same otherwise action will be initiated under

Section 98 of A.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1984. Aggrieved by the same

this Writ Petition is filed.

4. The learned counsel for the petitioner submits that the

petitioner also gave a representation to the 2nd respondent on

03.08.2021 informing that the tea shop is situated leaving the road

margin and margin from the Bus stop also, he is paying taxes to the

2nd respondent and it is not obstructing any passage or required for

any road widening purpose. Similar representation is given to the

3rd and 4th respondents on 04.08.2021. But in vain. There is a threat 

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of dispossession and no opportunity is given to the petitioner by the

2nd respondent.

5. In view of the above said facts and circumstances, the

2nd respondent is directed to consider and dispose of the

representation of the petitioner dated 03.08.2021 within four (4)

weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this Order. Till such

disposal of the said representation of the petitioner by the

2nd respondent there shall not be any dispossession of the petitioner

from running the said Tea stall. Any dispossession of the petitioner

and removal of the said tea stall shall be in accordance with law.

6. Accordingly, the Writ Petition is disposed of. There shall be no

order as to costs of the Writ Petition.

As a sequel thereto, miscellaneous petitions, if any, pending in

the Writ Petition shall stand closed.

______________________

JUSTICE B. KRISHNA MOHAN

06-08-2021

Note : Furnish C.C. by today

 (By order)

 Yvk

Friday, August 6, 2021

writ of mandamus declaring the action of respondents in awarding less marks in practicals of final year MBBS Part-II examination held during March 2021 and thereby failing the petitioners in final year MBBS Part-II as illegal, arbitrary and contrary to the guidelines for MBBS courses and syllabus prescribed by 2nd respondent University and also violative of Articles 14, 16 & 21 of Constitution of India = In similar circumstances, the Hon’ble Apex Court, vide order dated 18.06.2021 in W.P.(Civil) No.631/2021, while declining the prayer of the petitioners therein, who were final Post Graduate medical students, to waive their examinations and to promote them as Senior Residents and to the Post Doctoral level, held thus: “3. The petitioners have also questioned advisories regarding post graduate courses/examinations issued by the National Medical Commission being Annexures P3 and P4 to the writ petition and in effect sought orders of this Court directing the Respondent authorities to make relaxations in norms and criteria fixed as per policy decision in relation to medical education at the post graduate stage. It is impermissible for Courts exercising powers under Article 32 and/or Article 226 of the Constitution of India to interfere with or regulate policy matters or to sit in appeal therefrom.” So, at the outset this writ petition itself is not maintainable. Accordingly, this Writ Petition is dismissed.

AP HIGH COURT

 HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE U.DURGA PRASAD RAO

Writ Petition No.10878 of 2021

ORDER:

The petitioners pray for writ of mandamus declaring the action of

respondents in awarding less marks in practicals of final year MBBS Part-II

examination held during March 2021 and thereby failing the petitioners in

final year MBBS Part-II as illegal, arbitrary and contrary to the guidelines

for MBBS courses and syllabus prescribed by 2nd respondent University and

also violative of Articles 14, 16 & 21 of Constitution of India and

consequently direct the respondents 2 & 3 to award minimum qualifying

marks in MBBS final Part-II practical examination and pass them.

2. The petitioners’ case succinctly is thus:

 The petitioners are prosecuting MBBS course in 4th respondent

college. They joined 1st year MBBS during the Academic Year 2015-16 and

completed all the semesters including final year MBBS Part-I.

 While so, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, respondent No.3

conducted online classes to the students. However, there was no regular

correspondence with the concerned faculties for better understanding and

guidance. Respondent No.2 university issued notification on 30.01.2020 to

conduct final year exams of MBBS. Final year MBBS Part-II theory exams

were scheduled from 02.03.2021 to 12.03.2021 and practicals were

scheduled to be held on 22.03.2021. As per curriculum, final year MBBS

Part-II consists of four subjects viz.,

(1)General Medicine (Medicine)

(2)Paediatrics

(3)General Surgery including Paediatric Surgery, Orthopaedics and

Traumatology (Surgery) and

(4)Obstetrics and Gynaecology 

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As per guidelines, a student should score 50% in theory and practicals

and 35% as pass marks in internals and should score an aggregate of 50%

for qualifying the semesters. Teaching methodology is concerned, there

should be a minimum of 370 classes, out of which 1/3rd should be for theory

and remaining 2/3rd should be for lectures/demonstrations/integrated

teaching. However, due to COVID-19 pandemic the prescribed classes were

not conducted for theory as well as practicals, but the services of students of

final year were utilized for the treatment of COVID positive patients, due to

which some of the petitioners were affected with COVID.

In the above backdrop, the petitioners appeared for the exams

conducted by 2nd respondent University in the month of March 2021. As per

guidelines, the marks in practical exams were awarded by the professors of

the University or 3rd party colleges. During the practical examination the

petitioners performed to their level best though practical training for the

prescribed period was not conducted. The petitioners also appeared for the

theory exams. In the second week of April 2021 the 2nd respondent declared

the results. To their surprise, the petitioners failed on the ground that they

have not scored prescribed marks in practical exams within a margin of 5 to

10 marks. However, they were all passed in theory, oral and internal

assessments. It is not out of place to mention that for conducting regular

classes and practical training certain conditions were imposed during the

lockdown period, however, the 2nd respondent did not relax the conditions in

awarding marks in practical exams. The students who are having

background of medical hospital facility were passed. Due to awarding less

marks in practicals, the petitioners have to again attend all the papers once 

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again though they secured good marks in theory papers, which is much

tougher than other. As such the petitioners made representations to the

respondents 2 & 3 for reassessment of practical marks which were awarded

contrary to syllabus guidelines. But the respondents disinclined to reassess

the marks on the ground that no guidelines were prescribed for reassessment

of marks. Due to the unjustified acts of the respondents, the petitioners

would lose one academic year without their fault. Though the Government

extended all benefits to all the students in view of the COVID-19 pandemic,

respondent No.2 University did not take into consideration the same and

deprived the petitioners such benefits which amounts to violation of their

fundamental rights.

Hence, the writ petition.

3. The 3rd respondent filed counter opposing the writ petition and inter

alia contending thus:

MBBS course is governed by the regulations prescribed by the Apex

body i.e., National Medical Commission (NMC)/5th respondent. Being the

student of a professional course, each one shall acquire sufficient skills both

in theory and practical examinations to undertake responsibilities of a

physician of first contact who is capable of looking after the preventive,

promotive, curative and rehabilitative aspects of medical care.

The final MBBS part-II theory and practical examinations were

conducted as per the guidelines dated 29.11.2020 of NMC and letter dated

25.11.2020. All the Principals are advised that they shall ensure strict

compliance of guidelines issued by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare

and respective State/U.T. Governments about COVID-19 preventive 

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measures including social distancing, use of masks and sanitization

measures in hostels, classrooms, laboratories, lecture theatres and common

spaces etc. by following safety precautions.

Following the above guidelines the NMC, the eligible teachers were

appointed under Rule 13-Apppointment of examiners. The guidelines are:

1. No person shall be appointed as an examiner in any of the

subjects of the professional examination including final

professional examinations for awarding MBBS degree,

unless he/she has taken doctorate degree of a recognized

university or an equivalent qualification in the particular

subject as per the recommendation of the Council on

teachers’ eligibility qualifications and has had atleast five

years of total teaching experience in the subject concerned in

a college affiliated to a recognized university at a faculty

position.

2. There shall be atleast four examiners for 100 students, out of

whom not less than 50% must be external examiners. Out of

four examiners, the senior most internal examiner will act as

the Chairman and coordinator of the whole examination

programme, so that uniformity in the matter of assessment

of candidates is maintained. Where candidates appearing

are more than 100, one additional examiner for every

additional 50 or part thereof candidates appearing, be

appointed.

3. Non medical scientists engaged in the teaching of medical

students as whole time teachers, may be appointed as

examiners in their concerned subjects provided they possess

requisite doctorate qualifications and five year teaching

experience after obtaining their postgraduate qualifications.

Provided further that the 50% of the examiners (Internal &

External) are from the medical qualification stream. 

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4. External examiners shall not be from the same university

and preferably be from outside the state. (5) The internal

examiner in a subject shall not accept external examinership

for a college from which external examiner is appointed in

his subject.

5. A university having more than one college shall have

separate sets of examiners for each college, with internal

examiners from the concerned college.

6. External examiners shall rotate at an interval of 2 years.

7. There shall be a Chairman of the Board of paper-setters who

shall be an internal examiner and shall moderate the

questions.

8. Except Head of the department of subject concerned in a

college/institution, all other with the rank of reader or

equivalent and above with requisite qualifications and

experience shall be appointed as internal examiners by

rotation in their subjects; provided that where there are no

posts of readers, then an Assistant Professor of 5 years

standing may be considered for appointment as examiner.

Apart from the above regulations prescribed by NMC, the respondent

university also observed the revised guidelines in appointing the suitable

examiners to conduct exams not only at Narayana Medical College, Nellore,

but also other colleges in the entire State as per the letters dated 25.11.2020

and 28.01.2021 of the Secretary, NMC. After taking into consideration the

above guidelines of the advisory committee, the respondent university has

appointed eligible examiners in the subject of Surgery with three internals

and three externals, wherein one examiner is from the department of

Orthopedics i.e, (2+1), two examiners of Surgery and one examiner in

Orthopedics including Professor & HOD of Narayana Medical College,

Nellore. 

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 The students failed in the clinical examination need more clinical

coverage as it is the professional examination and they did not acquire

sufficient clinical skills to pass the examination which was assessed by six

eligible examiners/teachers.

 The NMC issued proceedings/Advisory dated 28.01.2021 stating that

the provisions have been amended and instructed the universities including

the respondent university that they adopt the above guidelines for

conducting examinations of MBBS batches who were admitted prior to the

Academic Year 2019-20 also. The petitioners are covered by the above

amended clause and thereby they are not entitled to any relief and their

prayer is contrary to the amended proceedings letter dated 28.01.2021.

 The clinical examination in the subject of Surgery at Narayana

Medical college, Nellore was held for a period of ten days i.e., from

23.03.2021 to 01.04.2021 by allowing a maximum of 25 students per day for

the examination. Therefore, erroneous/less awarding of marks by the

teachers is not at all feasible as there were sufficient number of teachers to

examine on each day. There are no merits in the writ petition and hence,

the same may be dismissed.

4. Heard arguments of the senior counsel Sri N.Subba Rao representing

Sri Soma Harinatha Reddy, counsel for petitioners, and learned Government

Pleader for Medical Health & Family Welfare representing the 1st

respondent, Sri G.Vijay Kumar, Standing Counsel for the respondents 2 & 3,

and Sri S.Vivek Chandra Sekhar, Standing Counsel for 5th respondent.

5. The point for consideration is whether there are merits in the writ

petition to allow? 

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6. Point: The fulcrum of the argument of learned senior counsel Sri

N.Subba Rao is that the petitioners are final year MBBS students and final

year MBBS Part-II theory examinations were scheduled from 02.03.2021 to

12.03.2021 and practicals were scheduled to be held on 22.03.2021.

However, since December 2019 world was caught under the grip of COVID19 pandemic and it spread to India in March 2020. Therefore, regular

classes were held only upto March 2020 and thereafter due to lockdown

imposed by the Central Government, theory and practicals could not be

conducted systematically. Though virtual teaching was commenced in the

colleges through online method, they were hardly competitive to impart

medical knowledge to the petitioners. Moreover, practical/clinical classes

were hardly conducted. Therefore, the petitioners were deprived of the

valuable theoretical lectures and practical training through physical mode

and thereby they could not fare well in the exams despite the fact that they

are intelligents by nature. Above all, the service of the petitioners, who are

final year students, were utilized for the treatment of COVID patients, due to

which some of the petitioners were also affected with COVID. Learned

counsel submitted, in this backdrop, the petitioners appeared for the exams

and they failed in practical exams with a narrow margin of 5 to 10 marks.

As such the petitioners made a representation to the respondents 2 & 3 for

reassessment of the practical marks, which were awarded contrary to the

syllabus guidelines, however, respondents declined to reassess the marks on

the ground that there were no guidelines for reassessment as prayed for.

Learned counsel argued that all other educational institutions have given

concession to their students in view of the COVID-19 pandemic keeping in 

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view the valuable academic career of the students. However, despite the

representation the 2nd respondent university did not consider the legitimate

prayer of the petitioners. Hence, their fundamental right is violated. He thus

prayed to allow the writ petition.

7. Severely opposing the writ petition, learned Standing Counsel for 2nd

respondent Sri G.Vijay Kumar argued that the MBBS course is governed by

the regulations prescribed by the Apex body i.e., National Medical

Commission and all the medical universities are bound by those regulations.

While so, during the COVID period, the NMC wrote a letter dated

12.11.2020 to the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of

India, recommending that medical colleges across the country must be

reopened on or before 01.12.2020 for the MBBS students who are already

pursuing the course and with the opening of medical colleges, in order to

facilitate UG training, all medical college affiliated hospitals would need to

have sufficient number of beds for non-COVID patients. The NMC further

recommended that the colleges shall abide with the COVID-19 reopening

guidelines issued by the Competent authorities in the Central/State/UT

Governments and the proposed schedule of medical training shall commence

on or before 01.12.2020. The NMC requested the Central Government to

issue necessary directions in that regard to all the State Governments for

reopening of the medical colleges. Consequently the Central Government in

its letter dated 25.11.2020 instructed the States/Union Territories to take

necessary steps to open the medical colleges on or before 01.12.2020.

Learned counsel thus argued that in spite of the prevalence of COVID-19

pandemic, the NMC took steps to reopen the medical colleges by 01.12.2020 

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and to conduct classes. Even before that, online classes were conducted. So

the petitioners cannot harp that they are not provided with sufficient teaching

in theory and practicals. He argued that to his information, except the

present petitioners no other students in the country rushed to the Court with

a prayer as made by the petitioners. He thus prayed to dismiss the writ

petition.

8. Learned Standing Counsel for 5th respondent also argued in similar

lines and emphasized that the regulations framed by the NMC and

consequent guidelines issued by the 2nd respondent university do not permit

to consider the request of the petitioners to award marks liberally in

practicals in spite of the poor performance of the students like petitioners.

9. I gave my anxious consideration to the above respective arguments.

The petitioners attribute their failure in final year MBBS practicals

examinations to the awarding of less marks by the respondent authorities

despite the fact that no proper teaching in theory and practicals was

conducted owing to COVID-19 pandemic. However, the contention of the

respondents is that in spite of the prevalence of COVID-19 pandemic, online

theory and practical classes were conducted and further, steps were taken to

reopen the medical colleges from 01.12.2020 to impart regular teaching and

clinical training and therefore, the petitioners cannot harp that no training

was provided to them. It is also their contention that the Regulations do not

provide any leeway to award marks in practicals despite poor performance

by the students. 

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10. I find force in the contention of the respondents. It is true that due to

COVID-19 pandemic there was some disruption in conducting theory

classes and practicals due to total lockdown. However, the recommendations

made by the NMC to the Ministry of Healthy & Family Welfare,

Government of India, vide its letter dated 12.11.2020, a copy of which is

filed along with counter affidavit, would show that the NMC has strongly

recommended that medical colleges across the country should be reopened

on or before 01.12.2020 for MBBS students who are already pursuing their

course. It is further recommended that with the opening of the medical

colleges, in order to facilitate UG training, all hospitals affiliated to medical

colleges would need to have sufficient number of beds for non-COVID

patients. Those recommendations were communicated by the Central

Government to the State/UT Governments vide its letter dated 25.11.2020.

Thus, as rightly argued by the learned counsel for respondents, the NMC and

the Central and State Governments have taken steps for reopening of the

medical colleges by 01.12.2020 to impart teaching and training. Besides,

online teaching was already going on by that time. Therefore, the petitioners

cannot harp that they were deprived of valuable teaching and training and

that was the sole reason for their failure in the practicals. It is pertinent to

point out that no students throughout the country including the petitioners

challenged the holding of exams on the ground that through virtual teaching

methodology, they could not understand the subjects and thereby they were

not in a position to write the exams. On the other hand, all the students,

including the petitioners, appeared in the annual examinations, in which

some students got through and some others including the petitioners failed.

So, at the outset, the petitioners cannot now clamour that online teaching 

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system had had adverse impact on their grasping power and thereby they

failed in the examination. When holding of examinations is not challenged,

the petitioners cannot attribute virtual teaching method as the cause for their

failure and on that ground they cannot seek for awarding marks liberally to

get through the practical exams.

 Added to the above, the regulations i.e., “Regulation on Graduate

Medical Education (Amendment) 2019” framed by the NMC do not contain

any provision to award marks liberally in some contingencies. On the other

hand, the regulations would project that the aim of the medical profession is

“help for all” and in that view, the sub-standard students cannot somehow be

elevated to higher classes which would degenerate the medical profession.

 Above all, this Court while exercising the plenary jurisdiction under

Article 226, cannot direct the statutory authorities like 2nd respondent

university and 5th respondent-NMC to award marks to the petitioners when

seemingly there was no violation of any fundamental right or other statutory

rights. In similar circumstances, the Hon’ble Apex Court, vide order dated

18.06.2021 in W.P.(Civil) No.631/2021, while declining the prayer of the

petitioners therein, who were final Post Graduate medical students, to waive

their examinations and to promote them as Senior Residents and to the Post

Doctoral level, held thus:

“3. The petitioners have also questioned advisories regarding post

graduate courses/examinations issued by the National Medical

Commission being Annexures P3 and P4 to the writ petition and in effect

sought orders of this Court directing the Respondent authorities to make

relaxations in norms and criteria fixed as per policy decision in relation to

medical education at the post graduate stage. It is impermissible for Courts

exercising powers under Article 32 and/or Article 226 of the Constitution

of India to interfere with or regulate policy matters or to sit in appeal

therefrom.” 

12

11. So, at the outset this writ petition itself is not maintainable.

Accordingly, this Writ Petition is dismissed. No costs.

As a sequel, interlocutory applications, if any pending, shall stand

closed.

 _________________________

 U. DURGA PRASAD RAO, J

05.08.2021

MVA

 

Learned counsel for petitioner submits that even if all the allegations are taken on its face value, the aforementioned offences are not attracted. Even as per the complaint, it is with the consent of complainant they had sexual intercourse, Section 376 IPC has no application. He submits that Sections 3(1)(w)(i) and 3(2)(v) of SC&ST (POA) Act are also not attracted because in this case complainant herself has stated that she voluntarily went to A-1 and gave consent for intercourse and there is no allegation of abuse in the name of caste. He further submits that earlier basing on whatsapp message sent by her to a third person, which was received by Sub Inspector of Police, on suomoto he has registered the complaint with similar allegations. When 164 Cr.P.C statement of the victim was recorded, the de facto complainant stated that she has not made such allegations.-Taking into consideration the present report and the earlier report given by the complainant, prima facie it appears that the alleged offences are not attracted against the petitioner. Hence, this Court deems it appropriate to grant bail to the petitioner.

THE HON’BLE SMT. JUSTICE LALITHA KANNEGANTI

CRIMINAL PETITION NO.4288 of 2021

ORDER:-

 This petition is filed under Sections 437 and 439 of Code of

the Criminal Procedure, 1973 (for short ‘Cr.P.C.’) seeking regular bail

to the petitioner/A-1 in connection with Crime No.278 of 2021 of

Buttaigudem Police Station, West Godavari District, for the offences

punishable under Sections 376(2)(n), 366, 370, 420 r/w 109 of the

Indian Penal Code, 1860, Sections 3(1)(w)(i) and 3(2)(v) of SC&ST

(POA) Amendment Act, 2015 and Section 5 of Immoral Traffic

(Prevention) Act, 1956.

2. The case of prosecution is that A-1 is working as Project

Officer, ITDA, KR Puram and the de facto complainant belongs to STKoya applied for the post of attender in ITDA and the 2nd accused

represented that he has got acquaintance with A-1 and he will

provide Government job. On 20.11.2020, A-2 called on the

complainant over phone and informed that the order copy is with A-1

and he has to personally serve the copy to her and on that the

complainant approached the ITDA office and returned as A-1 was not

available in the office. Again on 10.12.2020, A-2 made a call to the

complainant, informed her that A-1 is ready with the copy of order to

serve to her and asked her to meet A-1 for collecting the order copy

and that A-2 took her on his vehicle to the quarters of A-1. A-2

handed over her to A-3, A-3 took her from the back door of the

quarters of A-1. Accordingly, the complainant went to the quarters of

A-1, on that A-1 ascertained the particulars and asked her to

participate in sexual intercourse with him if she wants job of

attendor. The complainant agreed and participated in sexual 

2

intercourse with A-1 and later A-2 on his motorcycle dropped at her

house. On 20.12.2020 A-2 called the complainant informing that A-1

would definitely give the order copy to her and A-4 would come to her

to pick her up. In that aspect, the complainant waited at the road. At

that time, A-4 to A-7 came on their bikes and took her to the

quarters of A-1, believing that A-1 would give the order copy to her.

A-1 again sexually enjoyed her. Again 15 days later, A-2 asked her to

meet A-1. Then, she abused A-2 and warned him severely and on

that A-2 threatened her. Basing on the said report, the present crime

was registered.

3. Heard Sri Chandrasekhar Ilapakurti, learned counsel for the

petitioner and learned Assistant Public Prosecutor for the

respondent-State.

4. Learned counsel for petitioner submits that even if all the

allegations are taken on its face value, the aforementioned offences

are not attracted. Even as per the complaint, it is with the consent of

complainant they had sexual intercourse, Section 376 IPC has no

application. He submits that Sections 3(1)(w)(i) and 3(2)(v) of SC&ST

(POA) Act are also not attracted because in this case complainant

herself has stated that she voluntarily went to A-1 and gave consent

for intercourse and there is no allegation of abuse in the name of

caste. He further submits that earlier basing on whatsapp message

sent by her to a third person, which was received by Sub Inspector of

Police, on suomoto he has registered the complaint with similar

allegations. When 164 Cr.P.C statement of the victim was recorded,

the de facto complainant stated that she has not made such

allegations. He further submits that the de facto complainant for the 

3

reasons best known to her, has implicated the petitioner and he has

been languishing in jail since 25.06.2021.

5. Learned Assistant Public Prosecutor on the other hand

submits that petitioner has promised the complainant to secure a job

and exploited her sexually and there are specific overt acts against

the petitioner. He further submits that investigation is pending, as

such, at this stage petitioner is not entitled for bail.

6. Taking into consideration the present report and the earlier

report given by the complainant, prima facie it appears that the

alleged offences are not attracted against the petitioner. Hence, this

Court deems it appropriate to grant bail to the petitioner.

7. Accordingly, this Criminal Petition is allowed. The petitioner/

A-1 shall be enlarged on bail in Crime No.278 of 2021 of

Buttaigudem Police Station, West Godavari District on his executing

self bond for Rs.20,000/- (Rupees twenty thousand only) with two

sureties for a like sum each to the satisfaction of the Court of the

Judicial First Class Magistrate, Jangareddygudem, West Godavari

District.

 Consequently, miscellaneous applications pending, if any, shall

stand closed.

 ___________________________

 LALITHA KANNEGANTI, J

Date: 05.08.2021

KA 

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THE HON’BLE SMT. JUSTICE LALITHA KANNEGANTI

(Allowed)

CRIMINAL PETITION No. 4288 of 2021

Date: 05.08.2021

KA 

presence at the scene of offence,=deceased took cool drink in his shop and, thereafter, the incident in question took place. If that is so, the post-mortem certificate issued by PW14 vide Ex.P7 should give an indication of the presence of some liquid in the stomach, but the said report is otherwise. Therefore, the inconsistencies in the evidence of PW1, PW2, PW6 and PW7 throw any amount of doubt with regard to their presence at the scene of offence, at the time of incident.;presence of street lights = Ex.P5 is the scene observation report, which was prepared by the investigating officer in the presence of PW13. This document does not show existence of street lights at the scene. Even PW13 and PW17 did not clearly say about the existence of street lights or electrical poles at the scene of offence, which create a doubt as to the presence of street lights and PW1 and PW2 witnessing the incident with the help of street lights.;recovery of M.O.1 = On one hand, PW1 and PW2 deposed that M.O.1 was taken away by the accused along with him after attacking the deceased, but some speak about recovery of M.O.1 at the scene pursuant to the arrest of the accused. In view of the above, the recovery of M.O.1 at the instance of A1, cannot be believed. Apart from that, there is no evidence that the blood found on M.O.1 is that of the deceased, leave alone matching of blood group.- The conviction and sentence recorded against the appellant/accused No. 1 in the Judgment, dated 21.03.2014, in Sessions Case No. 71 of 2012 on the file of the III Additional Sessions Judge, Guntur, for the offence punishable under Section 302 I.P.C., is set- aside and he is acquitted for the said offence


AP HIGH COURT AMARAVATHI


1

THE HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE C. PRAVEEN KUMAR

AND

THE HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE B. KRISHNA MOHAN

Criminal Appeal No. 392 of 2014


JUDGMENT: (Per Hon’ble Sri Justice C.Praveen Kumar)

 Heard Sri. Chandra Sekhar Ilapakurti, learned Counsel

appearing for the Appellant and Sri. S. Dushyanth Reddy,

Additional Public Prosecutor, through Blue Jeans video

conferencing APP and with their consent, the appeal is disposed

of.

1) Accused No. 1 to 4 were charged for the offence punishable

under Sections 302 read with 34 of Indian Penal Code, 1860

[‘I.P.C.’] for causing the death of one Marri Veeranarayana

[‘Deceased’] on 08.06.2011 at about 12.30 a.m. By its

Judgment, dated 21.03.2014, in Sessions Case No. 71 of 2012,

the III Additional Sessions Judge, Guntur, while acquitting

Accused No. 3 and 4 for the offence punishable under Section

302 read with 34 I.P.C., convicted Accused No. 1 for the offence

punishable under Section 302 I.P.C., and sentenced him to

suffer imprisonment for life and to pay fine of Rs.1,000/-. The

case against Accused No. 2 was abated as he died on

18.06.2013.

2) The facts disclose as under:

a) PW1 is the father of the deceased, while PW2 is the

mother. PW8 is the wife of the deceased. There were 

2

disputes between the deceased and A1 and A2 with regard

to accused playing songs loudly in their auto. A quarrel

ensued on 01.01.2011, in which the accused and the

deceased received injuries. Accordingly, the deceased was

admitted in N.R.I. Hospital, but, however, no case was filed

in respect of the said incident. Keeping in view the above

incident, it is said that the accused hatched a plan to do

away with the deceased. It is further stated that, in the

month of April, 2011, the deceased along with his friends

quarrelled with A4 at Surya Wines, Chinakakani, in which

A4 received injuries.

b) On 08.06.2011 at about 10.00 P.M., PW1 and PW2 came

to know that a quarrel was going on between A1, A2 and

the deceased at a wine shop. At about 11.30 P.M., PW1

and PW2 came on to the main road in search of their son

and waited near the Arch for half-an-hour. It is said that at

12.30 midnight, the deceased went to the cool drink shop

of PW7, consumed cool drink and left on his motorbike. At

that time, PW7 claims to have noticed an auto standing by

the side of his shop in which A1, A2 and A4 were present.

The said auto followed the deceased.

c) The deceased came on his motorcycle from the petrol bunk

side and after moving ahead near the crossing of NH5, an

auto came from Vijayawada side and dashed the

motorcycle on which the deceased was going to his village. 

3

As a result of the impact, the deceased fell down on the

road. Thereafter, A1, A2 and another person came out of

the auto. A1 beat the deceased with a cement stone, while

A2 and another person held the hands and legs of the

deceased. A3 also got down from the auto along with A1

and A2. It is said that PW1 and PW2 went to the rescue of

their son, but the three accused threatened them. At that

time, one Thiruveedhula Naga Bhuyshanam [NE] and

Kuraganti Rambabu [PW6] came to the scene. Two more

persons, who are coming from Vijayawada side also came

there on hearing cries of PW1 and PW2. On seeing them,

A1 to A3 ran away by taking cement stone, leaving the

auto at the scene. PW1 and PW2 rushed towards their son,

who was lying on the road and within five minutes he died.

Thereafter, the relatives of PW1 and PW2 came there and

PW1 along with them went to the police station and lodged

a report with PW16 –Sub-Inspector of Police, who

registered a case in Crime No. 76 of 2011 for the offence

punishable under Section 302 read with 34 I.P.C. Ex.P11

is the First Information Report. Further investigation, in

this case, was taken up by PW17, who on receipt of the

F.I.R. at 3.00 A.M., visited Mangalagiri Rural Police

Station, obtained a copy of the First Information Report

and took up investigation. 

4

d) PW17 along with PW16 proceeded to the scene of offence,

which is in-front of Raj Kamal Agro Model Farm at

Chinakakani Village. He noticed the dead body lying on the

divider. A motorcycle and an auto were present near the

dead body. PW17 examined PW1 and PW2 and recorded

their statements. After moving in and around Chinakakani

and Kaza villages to enquire about the culprits, he

returned back to the scene at 6.30 A.M. and in the

presence of PW13, inspected the scene of offence. During

observation, he seized blood stained earth and controlled

earth and the auto of accused. M.O. 2 to M.O. 5 are the

articles seized at the scene. Ex.P5 is the observation report

and Ex.P12 is the rough sketch of the scene. He also got

photographed the scene, which are placed on record as

Ex.P13. Thereafter, in the presence of PW13, he conducted

inquest over the dead body under Ex.P6. During inquest,

he examined PW8 and others and recorded their

statements, and also seized M.O.6 to M.O.8. Thereafter,

the dead body was sent for post-mortem examination.

e) PW14 - the Civil Assistant Surgeon, in Government

General Hospital, Mangalagiri, conducted autopsy over the

dead body and issued Ex.P7 post-mortem report. He

noticed about 11 injuries on the body of the deceased and

the skull was open. According to him, the cause of death 

5

might have been due to head injury with contusion of

brain and large hemotoma.

f) PW17 who continued with the investigation arrested the

accused on 27.06.2011 in the presence of PW15 and

others. He interrogated the accused separately and

recorded their confessions. Basing on the confession made

by A1, they reached the compound of Raj Kamal Agro

Model Farms and a blood stained concrete stone is said to

have been discovered. M.O.1 is the cement stone. The

same was seized under Ex.P9 [Mahazar]. After collecting all

the necessary documents, a charge-sheet came to be filed,

which was taken on file as P.R.C. No. 33 of 2011 on the file

of Additional Judicial Magistrate of First Class,

Mangalagiri.

3) On appearance of the accused, copies of documents as

required under Section 207 Cr.P.C., came to be furnished. Since

the case is triable by Court of Sessions, the matter was

committed to the Sessions Court under Section 209 Cr.P.C.

Basing on the material available on record, charges as referred

to above came to be framed, read over and explained to the

accused, to which, the accused pleaded not guilty and claimed

to be tried.

4) In support of its case, the prosecution examined PW1 to

PW17 and got marked Ex.P1 to Ex.P13, beside marking MOs. 1

to 8. Out of 17 witnesses examined by the prosecution, PW3, 

6

PW5 and PW9 did not support the prosecution case and they

were treated hostile by the prosecution. After completion of

prosecution evidence, the accused were examined under Section

313 Cr.P.C. with reference to the incriminating circumstances

appearing against them in the evidence of prosecution

witnesses, to which they denied, but, however, did not adduce

any evidence in support of their defence.

5) Relying upon the evidence of PW1 and PW2, coupled with

the enmity between the accused and the deceased, the learned

Sessions Judge convicted A1. Challenging the same, the present

appeal came to be filed.

6) Sri. Chandra Sekhar Ilapakurti, learned counsel appearing

for the appellant submits that there is any amount of doubt with

regard to PW1 and PW2 witnessing the incident. He further

submits that Ex.P1, which is said to have been lodged by PW1 is

bereft of details, which are now mentioned by PW1 while giving

evidence in court. Apart from that, when the quarrel was at the

wine shop, there was no necessity for PW1 and PW2 to stay at

the arch awaiting for the arrival of the deceased.

(ii) The learned counsel further submits that PW1 and

PW2 claims to have witnessed the incident under the

illumination of lights, but, the mediator report and scene of

offence does not anywhere indicate existence of any lights at the

scene. Since, the incident took place in the dead of night,

possibility of they identifying the appellant, even assuming to be 

7

present, at the scene, is highly doubtful. He further submits that

the medical evidence is contrary to ocular evidence, and, as

such, there is any amount of doubt with regard to the timing of

the incident. Apart from that, the learned counsel would

contend that when the evidence of PW7 is to the effect that the

accused took cool drink at his shop at 12.30 midnight,

possibility of the incident happening prior to that time is

impossible, more so, having regard to the contents of the

stomach, as spoken to by the post-mortem doctor. Further, the

weapon, which is alleged to have been used, is a cement stone,

which could not have carried with them by the accused, leaving

the auto. Hence, the recovery of M.O.1 –cement stone at the

instance of the accused is doubtful, more so, when there is a

contra version from other prosecution witnesses.

7) The same is opposed by the learned Public Prosecutor

contending that the evidence of PW1 and PW2 who are the eye

witnesses to the incident cannot be disbelieved, merely because

Ex.P1 is silent on some aspects. In other words, his argument

appears to be that, the First Information Report is not a

encyclopaedia, which should contain all the details.

(ii) Coming to the presence of PW1 and PW2 and they

witnessing the incident, the learned Additional Public Prosecutor

would submit that they being known to the A1 and A2 even prior

to the incident, identifying them in the night cannot be said to

be improbable. The discrepancies, if any, pointed out with 

8

regard to the timing of the incident are trivial in nature, which

do not warrant disbelieving the prosecution story. According to

him, the conviction and sentence imposed by the trial court

warrants no interference.

8) The point that arises for consideration is, whether the

prosecution was able to bring home the guilt of the accused

beyond reasonable doubt?

9) In order to appreciate the rival contentions, it is just and

proper to refer to the evidence of some of the prosecution

witnesses.

10) PW1 in his evidence-in-chief deposed that, on the date of

incident, at about 10.00 P.M., he came to know that A1 and A2

quarrelled with his son [deceased] at a wine shop. At about

11.30 P.M., PW1 and PW2 came on to the main road in search of

their son [deceased]; reached near an arch on the main road and

waited there for half-an-hour. At that time, their son [deceased]

came on a motorcycle from petrol bunk side and after the

crossing on NH5, an auto came from the opposite side and

dashed the motorcycle, as a result of which, the deceased fell

down on the road. Then, A1, A2 and another person got down

from the auto. A1 is said to have beat the deceased with a

cement stone [M.O.1], while A2 and another person caught hold

of the hands and legs of the deceased. According to the

prosecution, the incident took place because of earlier disputes 

9

between both the groups, in which the deceased as well the

accused received injuries and were admitted in N.R.I. Hospital.

11) At this stage, it would be appropriate to refer to the crossexamination of PW1, which is as under:

“It is true in Ex.P1 name of A3 is not given. It is true I did not

give the name of A3 before police and also I have not given the

description of third person who came along with A1 and A2 in

auto in Ex.P1 and also to police. It is true I did not mention in

Ex.P1 that I can identify the 3rd person and no test of

identification parade is conducted in respect of 3rd person.

Ex.P1 was written by a constable.

It is true I have not mentioned in Ex.P1 that there are lights on

either side of the road and I saw the incident in a illumination

of lights and I have not stated same to police. It is true I have

not mentioned in Ex.P1 that immediately after the incident my

relatives came to the scene of offence and I went along with

them to the police station and I have not stated the same

before the police. I cannot give the number of auto and motor

cycle i.e., MO2 and 3. It is not true to suggest that the cement

stone which I stated is not MO1. It is true I have not mentioned

in Ex.P1 that I was standing along with LW2 and after 5

minutes I went to the place where my deceased son was lying

on the road margin. It is not true to suggest that I did not refer

the weapon of offence as cement stone in Ex.P1. It is true that I

did not mention the names of LW5 and LW6 and I did not state

the names of LW5 and 6 before the police. It is true I did not

mention the names of other witnesses in Ex.P1. It is true that I

did not state in Ex.P1 that I and LW2 reached near the Arch on

the main road and waited for half-an-hour. It is true I did not

mention in Ex.P1 report that deceased came on motor cycle

from the side of petrol bunk. It is not true to suggest that

specifically I did not state in Ex.P1 that the deceased was

coming from Guntur side and the auto is coming from

Vijayawada side.” 

10

12) From the above admissions, it is very much clear that

Ex.P1 is silent on many crucial aspects. Not only with regard to

the name but also participation of one of the assailant;

witnessing the incident in the illumination of street lights; PW1

and PW2 proceeding near to the arch and waiting there for halfan-hour; and the deceased coming on a motorcycle from the

petrol bunk side.

13) PW2 is the mother of the deceased, whose evidence though

toes in line with the evidence of PW1, also states that she saw

the incident in the illumination of lights situated on either side

of the road. But in the cross-examination, she admits that, she

did not state to police that she saw the incident in the

illumination of lights and that she did not state to police that

she and PW1 went to the arch on the main road. It would be

appropriate to extract the relevant portion from the crossexamination of PW2.

“It is true I did not state to the Police that I and PW1 went near

the Arch on main road. It is true I did not state to the Police that

I saw the incident in illumination of lights.”

14) From the evidence of these two witnesses, it is very clear

that her version in examination-in-chief, namely, that on

receiving information about a quarrel between the accused and

deceased near wine shop, proceeded towards arch and waited

there for half-an-hour are missing not only in the First

Information Report given by PW1 but also in the earlier

statement recorded by the police during the course of 

11

investigation. Therefore, the version of PW1 and PW2 that they

saw the incident while standing at the arch, has to be viewed

with suspicion.

15) The prosecution tried to rely on the evidence of PW4 to

show that PW1 and PW2 were present at the scene. A perusal of

the evidence of PW4 would show that on 08.06.2011 at about

12.30 A.M., while he was proceeding to Chinakakani from

Guntur, he found the deceased lying on the middle of the

highway and PW1 and PW2 present by deceased side. He also

observed a blood stained cement stone lying beside the

deceased, a motorbike and an auto at that place. A reading of

the evidence of PW4 shows as if M.O.1-cement stone alleged to

have been used by A1 was present by the side of the deceased,

which is contrary to the evidence of PW1, who in his evidence

deposed stating that A1 carried away M.O.1 cement stone along

with him. Further, his evidence does not indicate PW1 and PW2

being present at the time of attack.

16) PW6 is a resident of Kaza Village, who in his evidence

deposed that, he knows PW5 and about one and half year ago he

and PW5 went to Vijayawada on a motorcycle to purchase chill

seeds and stayed at Mangalagiri for about one and half hour.

When PW6 and PW5 reached the road near Chinakakani, they

heard cries. PW6 went there and saw A1 and A2 hitting the

deceased with a stone. He identifies A1 as Balaji and A4 as

Nagaraju [incorrect]. But, however, he moves closely to the place 

12

where they are standing and identifies A1, A2 and third person

as A3. He in his evidence deposed that when he and PW5 tried

to rescue the deceased, A1 to A3 threatened them. He also

speaks about the presence of PW1 and PW2.

17) In the cross-examination, PW6 categorically admits that

108 ambulance came to the scene of offence to a call made by

somebody and the persons who came with the ambulance

declared the deceased dead. But, one fact that is to be noted

here is that, neither PW1 nor PW2 deposed about the coming of

ambulance to the scene. Further, PW6 admits that a panchayat

was held relating to a theft of a motor-pump, in which elders

made him to pay Rs.10,000/- to one Balineni Bhaskara Rao. He

further admits that the Sub-Inspector of Police examined him at

the scene of offence on the next day morning at 11.30 A.M.

18) The evidence of this witness has to be viewed with

suspicion; firstly, for the reason that the village panchayat found

him guilty of committing theft of a motor-pump and he was

asked to pay Rs.10,000/- to one Balineni Bhaskara Rao;

secondly, he claims to have gone to Vijayawada to purchase

chilli seeds and after reaching Mangalagiri, he and PW5 waited

for one and half hour and during that period PW6 claims to have

seen the incident. But, PW5 did not support the version of PW6

with regard to witnessing the incident. On the other hand, his

version is that by the time they reached Mangalagiri, they only

noticed the dead body of the deceased lying on the road. 

13

19) One another fact, which requires to be noted here is that

the evidence of PW6 is silent with regard to the illumination of

lights on either side of the road. Being a stranger, he could have

identified the accused in the darkness, more so, in the court,

when no test identification parade was held. Therefore, PW6

cannot be said to be a wholly reliable witness, having regard to

the contents of Ex.P1 and the evidence of PW1 and PW2, which

we have referred to earlier.

20) Coming to the evidence of PW7, he in his evidence deposed

that, at about 12.30 midnight the deceased came to his cool

drink shop, consumed cool drink and left on his motorbike. He

claims to have seen an auto standing by the side of his shop

with A1, A2 and A4 in it, which followed the accused. After

sometime, he heard a big noise from the arch side and when he

went to the place, noticed PW1 and PW2 present and A1 hitting

the deceased with a stone while A2 was present with A1. He

claims to have gone to the rescue of the deceased, but A1

threatened to kill him also. After sometime, two people from

Kaza Village came to the scene who also tried to rescue the

deceased. However, on seeing the people gathered at the scene,

the accused ran away.

21) The evidence of PW7 assumes great significance as the

learned Public Prosecutor relied upon his evidence to

corroborate the version of PW1 and PW2. PW7 in his crossexamination admits that there was a faction in his village and 

14

his father contested for the post of President of the village, lost

the election and settled in Chinakakani village. He further

admits that the arch where the incident took place is situated at

a distance of half a kilometre from the petrol bunk, which is

situated towards Guntur side. It would be appropriate to extract

the same, which is as under:

“My native place is Neerukoknda Village. It is a faction village.

My father contested as President of our village and he lost the

election. It is true, due to faction in our village I left the village

and settled at Chinakakani village. It is true the petrol bunk is

situated towards Guntur City side. It is true the Arch is

situated half kilometre from the petrol bunk.”

22) From the evidence of this witness [PW7], it is very much

clear that at 12.30 in the midnight, the deceased took a cool

drink and then left on a motorbike. He noticed an auto standing

by the side of his shop, wherein A1, A2 and A4 were present. He

excludes the presence of A4 while giving evidence whose

presence is not spoken to by PW1, PW2 and PW6. According to

him, after the deceased left his shop, he heard a big sound from

the arch side. This arch, according to him is situated at a

distance of half a kilometre from the petrol bunk. This portion of

evidence of PW7 has to be tested with the evidence of PW1, who

in his evidence deposed, that while he and PW2 were waiting

near the arch, the deceased came on a motorcycle from a petrol

bunk side. Though, PW7 did not mention the distance between

his cool drink shop and petrol bunk, but definitely his own

evidence show that his shop is situated towards the petrol bunk 

15

and the arch is at a distance of half a kilometre from the petrol

bunk. That being so, PW7 could not have heard the sound of

auto dashing the deceased.

23) Apart from that, the evidence of PW1 and PW2 show that

the auto came from Vijayawada side towards Guntur and

dashed the motorcycle of the deceased, while the evidence of

PW7 is to the effect that after the deceased left, the auto which

was standing by the side of his shop, followed the motorcycle,

meaning thereby that the auto dashed the motorcycle from

behind, which is not the case of the prosecution. Therefore, the

version of PW7 is at total variance with the version of PW1 and

PW2. Further, the evidence of PW7 is to the effect that the

deceased took cool drink in his shop and, thereafter, the

incident in question took place. If that is so, the post-mortem

certificate issued by PW14 vide Ex.P7 should give an indication

of the presence of some liquid in the stomach, but the said

report is otherwise. Therefore, the inconsistencies in the

evidence of PW1, PW2, PW6 and PW7 throw any amount of

doubt with regard to their presence at the scene of offence, at

the time of incident.

24) Apart from the contradictions pointed out in the evidence

of PW1 and PW2 vis-à-vis Ex.P1 report, the argument of the

learned counsel for the appellant, as stated earlier is that these

two witnesses could not have witnessed the incident with the

help of street lights as there are no street lights at the scene. 

16

Ex.P5 is the scene observation report, which was prepared by

the investigating officer in the presence of PW13. This document

does not show existence of street lights at the scene. Even PW13

and PW17 did not clearly say about the existence of street lights

or electrical poles at the scene of offence, which create a doubt

as to the presence of street lights and PW1 and PW2 witnessing

the incident with the help of street lights.

25) Insofar as recovery of M.O.1 is concerned, as stated earlier,

there are varying versions about the same. On one hand, PW1

and PW2 deposed that M.O.1 was taken away by the accused

along with him after attacking the deceased, but some speak

about recovery of M.O.1 at the scene pursuant to the arrest of

the accused. In view of the above, the recovery of M.O.1 at the

instance of A1, cannot be believed. Apart from that, there is no

evidence that the blood found on M.O.1 is that of the deceased,

leave alone matching of blood group.

26) For the aforesaid reasons, the Criminal Appeal is allowed.

The conviction and sentence recorded against the

appellant/accused No. 1 in the Judgment, dated 21.03.2014, in

Sessions Case No. 71 of 2012 on the file of the III Additional

Sessions Judge, Guntur, for the offence punishable under

Section 302 I.P.C., is set- aside and he is acquitted for the said

offence. Consequently, the appellant/accused No.1 shall be set

at liberty forthwith, if he is not required in any other case or 

17

crime. The fine amount, if any, paid by the appellant shall be

refunded to him.

27) Consequently, miscellaneous petitions, if any, pending

shall stand closed.

_______________________________

JUSTICE C. PRAVEEN KUMAR

_______________________________

JUSTICE B. KRISHNA MOHAN

Date: 03/08/2021

S.M.. 

18

THE HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE C. PRAVEEN KUMAR

AND

THE HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE B. KRISHNA MOHAN

Criminal Appeal No. 392 of 2014

(Per Hon’ble Sri Justice C.Praveen Kumar)

Date: 03/08/2021

S.M. 

Monday, August 2, 2021

The Panguluri Seetammagari Arya Vysya Dharma Satram, which was the owner of certain extents of land in Sy.Nos.296 and 302 of Tirupati village, had initiated eviction proceedings against the persons, who were in possession of the said land. This litigation resulted in O.A.No.23 of 2003 being filed before the Deputy Commissioner of Endowments Kurnool, which came to be allowed on 09.07.2003 ordering eviction of the persons in possession of the said lands. = Directions are given, only by way of clarification, to ensure compliance of the earlier directions of this Court: 1) All those persons, who are said to be in possession of the house/house site in the aforesaid Ac.42.52 cents of land in Sy.Nos.296 and 302 of Tirupati, are permitted to make applications to the Assistant Commissioner of Endowments within a period of three weeks from today, along with all relevant documents and papers.2) At the end of the aforesaid three weeks time, the Assistant Commissioner Endowments shall forward all these applications to the committee, which has already been formed. This exercise shall be completed within one week from the end of the three week period mentioned above. 3) Upon receipt of such applications, the committee shall undertake the exercise of verifying as to who are eligible candidates and the cases of those persons whose applications are being rejected. 4) Once the said two lists are prepared, the respondents shall act strictly in accordance with the directions given by this Court in W.P.No.15138 and 16400 of 2009. There shall be no order as to costs. As a sequel, pending miscellaneous petitions, if any, shall stand closed.

HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

COMMON ORDER:

The petitioners in W.P.Nos.13842 of 2021 and 14457 of 2021 are

residing in Sy.Nos.296 and 302 of Seethammanagar, Muthyalreddipally,

Tirupati Urban Mandal Rural, Chittoor District. They have approached this

Court being aggrieved by the proceedings bearing Rc.No.B1/1557/2018,

dated 06.07.2021 of the Assistant Commissioner, Endowments

Department, Chittoor, the 3rd respondent herein. As the reliefs sought by

the petitioners in both these writ petitions are essentially the same, these

two writ petitions are being disposed of by this common order.

2. The Panguluri Seetammagari Arya Vysya Dharma Satram,

which was the owner of certain extents of land in Sy.Nos.296 and 302 of

Tirupati village, had initiated eviction proceedings against the persons,

who were in possession of the said land. This litigation resulted in

O.A.No.23 of 2003 being filed before the Deputy Commissioner of

Endowments Kurnool, which came to be allowed on 09.07.2003 ordering

eviction of the persons in possession of the said lands.

3. Aggrieved by the same, the persons in possession of the

land had been approached this Court by way of W.P.No.15138 and 16400

of 2009. This writ petition came to be disposed of on 20.10.2017. The

operative portion of the said order reads as follows:

1) The prayer to issue Mandamus is rejected, as this Court

cannot exercise jurisdiction or discretion under Article 226

of the Constitution of India.

2) The possession of 3rd parties or petitioners is admitted

by all. The District Collector has undertaken vide counter

affidavit dated 20.04.2011 to provide house-sites to 

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

2

eligible persons who are in possession of Trust property. It

is matter of common knowledge that the State

Government is implementing several welfare schemes

under which houses and house sites are provided to weak,

needy and eligible applicants. Therefore, the persons who

are in possession or desirous of taking

allotment from Government and vacate from Trust

property, are allowed to represent to Assistant

Commissioner, Endowments, the District Collector and the

Revenue Divisional Officer, Tirupati, by enclosing a copy of

this order. Such petitioner(s)/applicant(s) furnish all the

details that are required for consideration of their

applications for house-site allotment by District Collector.

On receipt of applications from petitioners, the issue of

consideration for allotment of house sites is taken up by

the Assistant Commissioner, Endowments with the

Revenue Divisional Officer and the Tahsildar. As stated in

the counter affidavit, house-sites are allotted to eligible

applicants. The said exercise shall be completed within a

period of three months from the date of receipt of a copy

of this order. For a period of four months, all the parties

are directed to maintain status quo as on today. The

petitioners who are ineligible or not interested in

representing to authorities, it is made clear the

respondents can implement the orders passed under Act

30 of 1987 for eviction of encroachers.

3) The District Collector constitutes a committee consisting

of Deputy Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner,

Endowments, Revenue Divisional Officer/Tahsildar and

Deputy Superintendent of Police/SHO for expeditious

consideration and implementation of the directions issued

by this Court in the present writ petitions.

The Committee examines the request of each eligible

person(s) and passes orders as are fit and provides house

or house-sites to eligible applicants in the schemes

implemented by Government of Andhra Pradesh. In the

alternative, if request for assignment is refused, the

decision is intimated to applicant(s) and the Assistant

Commissioner is entitled to evict such person(s). 

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

3

4) This Court, as already held, is not expressing a view on

the effect or nature of ossession claimed by the

petitioners. With a view to restricting the order only for the

petitioners/eligible persons, this Court directs the Assistant

Commissioner of Endowments to forthwith inspect Survey

Nos.296 and 302, take down details of occupants of

subject matter of writ petitions and prepare a list of all the

encroachers as on the date of inspection, which can be

relied on while examining the applications given for

allotment of house site pattas.

4. It appears that the writ appeal being W.A.No.528 of 2018

came to be filed against the order in W.P.Nos.15138 and 16400 of 2009

and the same was dismissed for want of prosecution, vide order dated

31.10.2019. Subsequently, a restoration petition has also been filed and

the same is pending. However, for the present, it must be held that the

order of the learned Single Judge in W.P.Nos.15138 and 16400 of 2009

dated 20.10.2017 holds the field.

5. In a parallel proceeding, the Assistant Commissioner of

Endowments by proceedings in Rc.No.B1/1557/2018 Adm., dated

06.07.2021 issued communication to the Superintendant of Police Tirupati

(Urban) and the Revenue Divisional Officer, Tirupati to depute necessary

assistance to enable the Assistant Commissioner Endowments to evict the

encroachers to an extent of Ac.42.52 cents of land situated in

Muthyalareddypalle, Tirupati Town, Chittoor District in Sy.Nos.296 and

302 belonging to the 8th respondent in W.P.No.13842 of 2021. This

communication is said to have been issued in pursuance of the directions

given by this Court in W.P.Nos.15138 and 16400 of 2009.

6. Heard Sri G. Tuhin Kumar, learned counsel for the

petitioners in W.P.No.13842 of 2021, Sri M. Ramalingeswara Reddy, 

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

4

learned counsel for the petitioners in W.P.No.14457 of 2021 and learned

Government Pleader for Endowments Sri K.S. Gopala Krishna appearing

for the 8th respondent-trust.

7. The grievance of the petitioners is that they are sought to be

evicted without following the directions issued in W.P.No.15138 and

16400 of 2009 dated 20.10.2017.

8. The learned Government Pleader has submitted written

instructions received by her from the Assistant Commissioner of

Endowments, Chittoor.

9. A perusal of the operative portion of the directions given by

this Court in W.P.Nos.15138 and 16400 of 2009 dated 20.10.2017 would

clearly show that the persons in possession of the trust property are to

forward applications to the Assistant Commissioner Endowments, the

District Collector and the Revenue Divisional Officer, Tirupati, for

considering their applications for house site allotment by the District

Collector upon receipt of such applications from the petitioners in the said

writ petitions. The said applications are to be considered for allotment of

house sites and necessary house sites would be allotted to the eligible

applicants within a period of three months from the date of receipt of the

copy of the order of this Court in W.P.Nos.15138 and 16400 of 2009. For

this purpose the District Collector would constitute a committee which

would consider the requests of each eligible person and pass orders as are

fit for either providing house/house site to the eligible applicants in any of

the schemes implemented by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, and in

the event of such request being refused intimate the said decision to the

applicants. There was also a direction that upon such intimation of refusal,

the Assistant Commissioner would be entitled to evict such persons.

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

5

10. In the present case, none of the above exercises seems to

have been carried out either by the petitioners, who have now

approached this Court or by the authorities who were directed to

constitute a committee and consider all these issues.

11. Instead of complying with the said directions, it appears that

the Assistant Commissioner, Endowments has initiated eviction

proceedings and sought the assistance of the Superintendent of Police

and the Revenue Divisional Officer, Tirupati. The instructions submitted by

the learned Government Pleader also do not show that the directions of

this Court have been complied with. In fact, in paragraph-8 of the said

instructions, it is stated that a committee was, in fact, set up. However,

the committee has not undertaken the main task of going through the

applications and considering the merits of the applications.

12. In these circumstances, these writ petitions are disposed of

with a direction to the respondents to act strictly in compliance with the

directions of this Court in W.P.No.15138 and 16400 of 2009 dated

20.10.2017.

13. The following directions are given, only by way of

clarification, to ensure compliance of the earlier directions of this Court:

1) All those persons, who are said to be in possession of the

house/house site in the aforesaid Ac.42.52 cents of land in

Sy.Nos.296 and 302 of Tirupati, are permitted to make applications

to the Assistant Commissioner of Endowments within a period of

three weeks from today, along with all relevant documents and

papers.

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

6

2) At the end of the aforesaid three weeks time, the Assistant

Commissioner Endowments shall forward all these applications to

the committee, which has already been formed. This exercise shall

be completed within one week from the end of the three week

period mentioned above.

3) Upon receipt of such applications, the committee shall undertake

the exercise of verifying as to who are eligible candidates and the

cases of those persons whose applications are being rejected.

4) Once the said two lists are prepared, the respondents shall act

strictly in accordance with the directions given by this Court in

W.P.No.15138 and 16400 of 2009.

There shall be no order as to costs. As a sequel, pending

miscellaneous petitions, if any, shall stand closed.

 _________________________

R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO, J.

27th July, 2021

Js.

 RRR,J

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

7

HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

W.P.Nos.13842 and 14457 of 2021

27th July, 2021

Js.

Reservations in out sourcing services in resepct of Hindu Temples = As the Circulars and Government Orders relate to outsourcing employees in the Government organizations, and the temples and the Hindu religious institutions are not Government organizations, they cannot be brought under the purview of the Andhra Pradesh Corporation for Outsourced Services.= held that the Circulars and Government Orders issued by the Government, as mentioned above, must be interpreted to mean that the recruitment of outsourced employees for Hindu Temples and Hindu religious institutions cannot be done through APCOS and the rule of reservation in its entirety cannot be applied to recruitment of such outsourced employees. However, the said rule of reservation shall continue to apply even where such recruitment was done through other agencies to the extent of accommodating depressed classes of the society where members of such classes of society profess the Hindu faith.

IN THE HIGH COURT OF ANDHRA PRADESH AT AMARAVATI

***

W.P.No.6821 of 2021

Between:

# Syama Prasad Mukherjee Gollapudi

 S/o. Late Radha Krishna Murthy,

 Occ: Advocate, R/o. LIG I H 228,

 APHB Colony, Tadepalligudem-534101

 West Godavari District, A.P.

… Petitioner

AND

$ 1. The State of Andhra Pradesh, rep. by its Secretary, General

 Administration Department, Secretariat, Velagapudi, Amaravathi,

 Guntur District.

 2. The Commissioner, Endowments Department, A.P., Gollapudi,

 Vijayawada, Krishna District.

 ... Respondents

Date of Judgment pronounced on : 29-07-2021

HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

1. Whether Reporters of Local newspapers : Yes/No

 May be allowed to see the judgments?

2. Whether the copies of judgment may be marked : Yes/No

 to Law Reporters/Journals:

3. Whether the Lordship wishes to see the fair copy : Yes/No

 Of the Judgment? 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

2

*IN THE HIGH COURT OF ANDHRA PRADESH AT AMARAVATI

* HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

+ W.P.No.6281 of 2021

%Date: 29.07.2021

Between:

# Syama Prasad Mukherjee Gollapudi

 S/o. Late Radha Krishna Murthy,

 Occ: Advocate, R/o. LIG I H 228,

 APHB Colony, Tadepalligudem-534101

 West Godavari District, A.P.

… Petitioner

AND

$ 1. The State of Andhra Pradesh, rep. by its Secretary, General

 Administration Department, Secretariat, Velagapudi, Amaravathi,

 Guntur District.

 2. The Commissioner, Endowments Department, A.P., Gollapudi,

 Vijayawada, Krishna District.

 ... Respondents

! Counsel for petitioner : Sri V. Venugopala Rao

^Counsel for Respondents : G.P. for Endowments

<GIST :

>HEAD NOTE:

? Cases referred: 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

3

HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

ORDER:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh had been framing policy and

guidelines for recruitment of persons on outsourcing/contract basis from

time to time. By G.O.Ms.No.126 dated 18.10.2019, the Government

declared its policy of incorporating a dedicated corporation, which would

directly outsource manpower to various departments/organizations in the

State as per their requirement. Thereafter, G.O.Ms.No.136 dated

04.11.2019 was issued recording the fact that a company named Andhra

Pradesh Corporation for Outsourced Services (APCOS) had been

incorporated under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 with the objects

and purposes set out in the said G.O. The Government, in pursuance of

the policy announced, earlier, had issued a Circular Memo No.GAD01-

SUOMISC/31/2019-SU-I, dated 20.11.2019 laying down the following

guidelines to the said outsourcing corporation. Relevant para of the

Circular is as follows:

I) Removal of private outsourcing agencies/middle

men

II) Corruption free outsourcing placement

III) Implementation of 50% reservation for BCs, SCs,

STs and Minorities, and 50% reservation for

women

IV) Timely and full payment of remuneration, without

any undue cuts

V) Proper credit of EPF and ESI

2. Thereafter, the Government of A.P. had again issued circular

Memo.No.GAD01-SUOMISC/31/2019-SU-I, dated 21.07.2020. The

guidelines set out in this Circular are in continuation of the guidelines set 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

4

out in the earlier Circular dated 20.11.2019. This Circular was to apply to

the following organizations.

“All the Secretariat Departments, State Head of

Departments, PSUs/ Government aided Institutions /

Organizations / Universities / Societies / Autonomous

bodies / Semi-autonomous bodies, District level Offices,

etc., are requested to migrate their outsourced employees

to the APCOS, by 25-07-2020, duly following guidelines

issued in the reference (3) cited above.”

3. After issuance of these Government Orders and Circulars,

the 2nd respondent issued the impugned Memo No.K3/3676187/2020,

dated 29.07.2020 directing all the drawing and disbursement officers and

temple executive authorities to engage manpower and work on

outsourcing only through the A.P. Corporation for Outsourced Services

with a stipulation that this should be done strictly in accordance with the

procedure prescribed in the Circular dated 21.07.2020 without any

deviation and with immediate effect.

4. The petitioner, who claims to be a person, who is a strong

devotee of Tirumala and Dwaraka Tirumala temples, being aggrieved by

the said Circulars, has filed the present writ petition challenging the

Circular Memo dated 21.07.2020 of the 2nd respondent.

5. Sri V. Venugopala Rao, learned counsel appearing for the

petitioner assails the said Circulars on the following grounds.

a) The Government Orders and Circulars read together, stipulate

that the rule of reservation has to be applied in the course of appointment

of outsourced employees. This would mean that minorities belonging to

the religions other than Hinduism would have to be mandatorily appointed

as employees of the Hindu temples. 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

5

b) The provisions of Section 29(3) require the executive officers of

the Hindu temples to be Hindus only. Similarly, a reading of

Sections 13, 23 and 35 of the Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu

Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987 (for short ‘the Act’)

would also show that any person associating with the administration of

any Hindu temple, at any level, would require to be a Hindu as a nonHindu employee of a temple would not be in consonance with these

provisions, which require all functions and affairs of the temples to be

performed strictly in accordance with the Agamas and the practices and

conventions which have been laid down over a long period of time.

c) The Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions

and Endowments Office Holders and Servants Service Rules, 2000 issued

by way of G.O.Ms.No.888, Revenue (Endowments.I) dated 08.12.2000

stipulates, in Rule-3, that every office holder and servant of a religious

institution or endowment shall be a person professing the Hindu religion

and shall cease to hold the office when the person ceases to profess

Hindu religion.

6. Article 16(5) of the Constitution of India also provides that

while reservation can be made for certain sections of society, in relation to

public employment, the said provisions shall not affect the operation of

any law which provides that the incumbent of an office, in connection with

the affairs of any religious or denominational institution, should be a

person professing a particular religion or belonging to a particular

denomination.

7. A combined reading of these provisions would show that

application of reservation whereby the persons belonging to other

religions would have to be appointed as the office holders or servants of 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

6

the Hindu temples, is not permissible and even the framers of the

Constitution had considered this aspect and provided that the said

institutions would be exempted from the general rule of reservation.

8. The provisions of the Circulars and the Government Orders

are to the effect that the outsourcing employees, who are being appointed

to the Government organizations including the societies and autonomous

bodies would have to utilize the services of the outsourcing company and

also implement the rule of reservation in its entirety. This would not be

applicable to temples inasmuch as the said temples are not Government

organizations and at best the role of Government is that of a trustee of

the temples at the very best, and that of an appointing agency of such

trustees at the very least. In such circumstances, these Circulars and

Government Orders cannot apply to the outsourcing of employees by

temples and other religious institutions.

9. The 2nd respondent has filed a counter affidavit and the

learned Government pleader while reiterating the said averments in the

counter affidavit, submits that the writ petition is being filed on the

misplaced apprehension of the petitioner that the members of other

religions would be taken into the service of the Hindu religious

institutions. She submits that while the rule of reservation would be

applied, the same would be restricted only to the members of the Hindu

religion and the persons professing the other religion would not be

included in the rule of reservation. She further submits that the

apprehension raised by the petitioners in the writ petition that existing

outsourced employees would have to be retrenched or removed from

service is also misplaced as the exercise under the Circulars and the 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

7

Government Orders is to migrate all the existing outsourced employees

from private outsourcing agencies to the Government agency.

Consideration of the Court:

10. A reading of the Circulars and the Rules reveal that the

policy of the Government is, firstly, to bring all the outsourcing employees

engaged by the Government and organizations of the Government under

the control of one Corporation and consequently to ensure that the rule of

reservation in its entirety is applied wherever such outsourced employees

are being engaged by the Government or Governmental organizations.

The impugned Circular issued by the 2nd respondent is merely reiterating

and reaffirming the said policy and intention of the Government.

11. In view of the provisions of Sections 13, 23, 29 (3) and 35 of

the Act and Rule 3 of the A.P. Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions

and Endowments Office Holders and Servants Service Rules, 2000, the

employment of any person not professing the Hindu religion is prohibited

in any temple or religious institution. Under the rule of reservation, certain

sections of Hindus, upon conversion to another religion fall within the

category B-C and the category BC-E is reserved for the members of

another non-Hindu religion. The application of the rule of reservation in its

entirety would result in appointment of persons who profess religions

other than Hinduism to be brought in as employees/servants of temples in

Hindu Religious Institutions.

12. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is an enabling

provision for providing reservations for classes of persons, who have been

deprived of adequate reservation in the services of the State. However,

while enabling such progressive reservation, Article 16 (5) also caters to 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

8

the sentiments and beliefs relating to the persons following particular

religions and provides that nothing in Article 16 would affect the operation

of any law, which protects such beliefs and faith of persons following any

particular religion. This provision is not necessarily restricted to the

persons following the Hindu religion but is also applicable to any other

religion.

13. In the circumstances, in view of the conflict between the

provisions of the Endowments Act and the Rules as mentioned above and

the requirements of the rule of reservation, it would have to be held that

the rule of reservation in its entirety cannot be applied to religious

institutions or temples.

14. Coming to the second argument of Sri V. Venugopal Rao,

learned counsel for the petitioner, it must be remembered that the

temples and Hindu religious institutions are not Government

organizations. They are institutions set up on account of the belief and

faith of the persons professing the Hindu religion. They have nothing to

do with the secular functions of the State and are purely religious

organizations. The role of the State in such organizations, as provided

under the Endowments Act, 1987, is restricted to ensure that the secular

affairs of the temples and religious institutions are maintained properly.

This role of the State, which extends to the appointment of trustees and

supervision of the secular affairs of the institutions under the Endowments

Act, will not extend to a stage where the temples and Hindu religious

institutions become part of the State. Temples and other Hindu religious

establishments are neither Government nor organizations of the

Government for the purpose of the applicability of the aforesaid

Government Orders or Circulars. 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

9

15. As the Circulars and Government Orders relate to

outsourcing employees in the Government organizations, and the temples

and the Hindu religious institutions are not Government organizations,

they cannot be brought under the purview of the Andhra Pradesh

Corporation for Outsourced Services.

16. For all the aforesaid reasons, it must be held that the

Circulars and Government Orders issued by the Government, as

mentioned above, must be interpreted to mean that the recruitment of

outsourced employees for Hindu Temples and Hindu religious institutions

cannot be done through APCOS and the rule of reservation in its entirety

cannot be applied to recruitment of such outsourced employees. However,

the said rule of reservation shall continue to apply even where such

recruitment was done through other agencies to the extent of

accommodating depressed classes of the society where members of such

classes of society profess the Hindu faith.

17. Accordingly the writ petition is allowed and the impugned

Circular Memo No.K3/3676187/2020, dated 29.07.2020 is set aside. There

shall be no order as to costs. As a sequel, pending miscellaneous

petitions, if any, shall stand closed.

 ________________________

R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO, J

29th July, 2021

Js 

 RRR,J.

W.P.No.6281 of 2021

10

HON’BLE SRI JUSTICE R. RAGHUNANDAN RAO

W.P.Nos.6281 of 2021

29th July, 2021

Js 

right of an accused to have his bail application heard by the Court within a reasonable time has been entrenched as a constitutional liberty. At the same time, disposal of bail application without furnishing the order copy within a reasonable time will not place the accused in a better position. Mere emphasizing that an accused has an indefeasible fundamental right to bail itself is not sufficient without furnishing the copy of the order. -GUIDE LINES ISSUED


Hence, this Court feels that an alternative mechanism shall be evolved to address the plight of these undertrial prisoners/accused. Recently, the Hon’ble Apex Court has also taken a serious note of this issue. 

9. Protection of personal liberty of an individual is undeniably a constitutional duty of this Court. Our criminal justice system always gives paramount consideration to the protection of the rights of the accused. Article 21 of the Constitution of India mandates that the personal liberty of an accused can be curtailed only after strict compliance with the procedure established by law. Sections 438 and 439 of Cr.P.C. ensures that the accused is not deprived of his personal liberty arbitrarily. The Hon’ble Apex Court in catena of cases has held that speedy adjudication process is one of the main facets that 4 constitute the essence of access to justice and without it, access to justice as a constitutional value will be a mere illusion. Denial of this right undermines public confidence in the justice delivery system. It is also settled law that the right of an accused to have his bail application heard by the Court within a reasonable time has been entrenched as a constitutional liberty. At the same time, disposal of bail application without furnishing the order copy within a reasonable time will not place the accused in a better position. Mere emphasizing that an accused has an indefeasible fundamental right to bail itself is not sufficient without furnishing the copy of the order. 

10. This is high time the Courts shall address these issues with a progressive approach by adopting the innovative methods. Recently Andhra Pradesh High Court implemented a procedure whereby the concerned Court Masters are uploading the daily proceedings / orders / judgments on the same day. This Court deems it appropriate to issue the following guidelines. 

(a) Parties/Advocates shall download the order copy from the High Court’s Website along with case details which are available in the case status information. 

(b) While filing the memo on behalf of accused for furnishing sureties, the Advocate shall State in the memo that he/she has downloaded the order copy from the High Court’s Website. The concerned Administrative Officer / Chief Ministerial Officer of the Court shall verify the order from the High Court’s Website and make an 5 endorsement to that effect and then shall place the same before the Court. 

(c) The Public Prosecutor shall also obtain necessary instructions in this regard and assist the Court. 

(d) The Presiding Officer on the same day shall dispose of the same and dispatch the release order to the concerned jail authorities forthwith through email or any other electronic mode. 

(e) In cases of anticipatory bail, the burden to verify the authenticity of the copy is on the concerned Station House Officer and if necessary, he should obtain necessary instructions from the Public Prosecutor’s Office and complete the process on the same day expeditiously as per law. 

(f) Registrar (Judicial) shall communicate copy of this order to 

(1) The Principal Secretary for Home Affairs, Andhra Pradesh; 

(2) The Director General of Police, Andhra Pradesh; 

(3) The Director of Prosecution, who in turn shall sensitize the Police Officers / Station House Officers / Public Prosecutors and ensure implementation of this order. 

(g) Registrar (Judicial) shall communicate copy of this order to all the Principal District Judges in the State, who in turn shall sensitize all the Presiding Officers and ensure implementation of this order. 

(h) Registrar (Judicial) is further directed to circulate the copy of this order to all the Bar Associations in the State through the Principal District Judges, so that they can effectively address their clients’ cause. 

(i) Registrar (Judicial) shall also issue a separate notification in this regard and the same shall be displayed in the High Court’s Website. 

11. This order shall come into force from 26.07.2021. 

12. The Judicial Officers in the State shall bring to the notice of the Registrar (Judicial), the issues / hitches, if any, in implementing the directions of this Court. In case of anticipatory bails, the Police Officials shall bring to the notice of the Public Prosecutor, High Court about their difficulties in implementing the orders of this Court and the Registrar (Judicial) and learned Public Prosecutor shall place the same before this Court by the next date of hearing i.e. 31.08.2021. 

13. These directions will be in force until further orders or suitable Rules are framed in this regard. It is needless to mention, if any clarification or modification is required for effective implementation, they will be examined accordingly on the next date of hearing.

14. In spite of all odds, determined efforts are required for achieving the goal. Ways and means have to be found out by constant thinking and monitoring. It is the responsibility of all the stakeholders to uphold the public confidence in the justice delivery system by giving timely justice which includes furnishing the copies of orders/judgments. 

15. Post on 31.08.2021. 

AP HIGH COURT

THE HON’BLE SMT. JUSTICE LALITHA KANNEGANTI

CRIMINAL PETITION NO.3933 of 2021

Korra Bhaskara Rao

Versus

The State of Andhra Pradesh

ORDER:-

 This petition is filed under Sections 437 and 439 of Code

of the Criminal Procedure, 1973 (for short ‘Cr.P.C.’) seeking

regular bail to the petitioner/ A-2 in connection with Crime

No.38 of 2020 of Mothugudem Police Station, East Godavari

District for the offence punishable under Section Section

20(b)(ii)(C) r/w Section8 (c) of the Narcotic Drugs and

Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (for brevity “NDPS Act”).

2. The case of prosecution is that on 03.09.2020 on credible

information about illegal transportation of ganja, the respondent

Police rushed to Daralamma Temple, outskirts of Polluru village

of Chinturu Mandal and while conducting vehicle check at

about 11.00 AM, they found a Bolero pick-up van bearing

registration No.AP 24 TB 1550 coming from Donkarai

proceeding towards Lakkavaram Junction. On seeing the police,

the inmates of the said Bolero van tried to escape from the spot,

but the police apprehended them and on search, they found 300

KGs of ganja. The police seized the contraband, registered the

crime, arrested the petitioner and remanded him to judicial

custody on the same day.

3. Heard Sri G.Venkata Reddy, learned counsel for the

petitioner and the learned Public Prosecutor for the respondentState. 

2

4. Learned counsel for the petitioner/A-2 submits that the

petitioner has nothing to do with the alleged offence and in fact,

the petitioner was engaged by A-1 on payment of Rs.15,000/-

who accompanied him. Further the officer who acted as a

gazetted officer while conducting the search and seizure is a

veterinary doctor and the said doctor is not a competent person

to act as a gazetted officer under Sections 42, 43 and 50 of the

NDPS Act. Learned counsel for the petitioner further submits

that the entire investigation is completed and the petitioner is

languishing in jail from 03.09.2020.

5. On the other hand, the learned Additional Public

Prosecutor submits that on 13.10.2020 charge sheet was filed.

6. Taking into consideration the fact that the entire

investigation is completed and charge sheet is filed and further

the petitioner is languishing in jail from 03.09.2020, this Court

deems it appropriate to grant bail to the petitioner. However, on

certain conditions.

7. Accordingly, the petitioner/ A-2 shall be enlarged on bail

on execution of self bond for Rs.2,00,000/- (Rupees two lakhs

only) with two sureties for a like sum each to the satisfaction of

the Court of the Additional Judicial First Class Magistrate,

Rampachodavaram. On such release, the petitioner shall appear 

3

before the Station House Officer, Mothugudem Police Station,

East Godavari District, once in a month till completion of trial.

8. This Court having criminal roster from the last couple of

months has noticed that in spite of best efforts by the Registry,

there is significant delay in issuing the certified copies of the

orders. This Court is conscious of the large number of cases

pending before the Court, due to dearth of staff, it is difficult to

issue the order copies within a short span of time. In cases,

where the accused are entitled for statutory bail as they are

languishing in jail for more than 60, 90 and 180 days, when

default bail is granted, it was brought to the notice of the Court

that there was considerable delay in dispatching the copy of

orders. Hence, this Court feels that an alternative mechanism

shall be evolved to address the plight of these undertrial

prisoners/accused. Recently, the Hon’ble Apex Court has also

taken a serious note of this issue.

9. Protection of personal liberty of an individual is

undeniably a constitutional duty of this Court. Our criminal

justice system always gives paramount consideration to the

protection of the rights of the accused. Article 21 of the

Constitution of India mandates that the personal liberty of an

accused can be curtailed only after strict compliance with the

procedure established by law. Sections 438 and 439 of Cr.P.C.

ensures that the accused is not deprived of his personal liberty

arbitrarily. The Hon’ble Apex Court in catena of cases has held

that speedy adjudication process is one of the main facets that 

4

constitute the essence of access to justice and without it, access

to justice as a constitutional value will be a mere illusion.

Denial of this right undermines public confidence in the justice

delivery system. It is also settled law that the right of an

accused to have his bail application heard by the Court within a

reasonable time has been entrenched as a constitutional

liberty. At the same time, disposal of bail application without

furnishing the order copy within a reasonable time will not place

the accused in a better position. Mere emphasizing that an

accused has an indefeasible fundamental right to bail itself is

not sufficient without furnishing the copy of the order.

10. This is high time the Courts shall address these issues

with a progressive approach by adopting the innovative

methods. Recently Andhra Pradesh High Court implemented a

procedure whereby the concerned Court Masters are uploading

the daily proceedings / orders / judgments on the same day.

This Court deems it appropriate to issue the following

guidelines.

(a) Parties/Advocates shall download the order copy from

the High Court’s Website along with case details which

are available in the case status information.

(b) While filing the memo on behalf of accused for furnishing

sureties, the Advocate shall State in the memo that

he/she has downloaded the order copy from the High

Court’s Website. The concerned Administrative Officer /

Chief Ministerial Officer of the Court shall verify the

order from the High Court’s Website and make an 

5

endorsement to that effect and then shall place the same

before the Court.

(c) The Public Prosecutor shall also obtain necessary

instructions in this regard and assist the Court.

(d) The Presiding Officer on the same day shall dispose of

the same and dispatch the release order to the

concerned jail authorities forthwith through email or any

other electronic mode.

(e) In cases of anticipatory bail, the burden to verify the

authenticity of the copy is on the concerned Station

House Officer and if necessary, he should obtain

necessary instructions from the Public Prosecutor’s

Office and complete the process on the same day

expeditiously as per law.

(f) Registrar (Judicial) shall communicate copy of this order

to (1) The Principal Secretary for Home Affairs, Andhra

Pradesh; (2) The Director General of Police, Andhra

Pradesh; (3) The Director of Prosecution, who in turn

shall sensitize the Police Officers / Station House

Officers / Public Prosecutors and ensure implementation

of this order.

(g) Registrar (Judicial) shall communicate copy of this order

to all the Principal District Judges in the State, who in

turn shall sensitize all the Presiding Officers and ensure

implementation of this order.

(h) Registrar (Judicial) is further directed to circulate the

copy of this order to all the Bar Associations in the State

through the Principal District Judges, so that they can

effectively address their clients’ cause.

(i) Registrar (Judicial) shall also issue a separate

notification in this regard and the same shall be

displayed in the High Court’s Website. 

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11. This order shall come into force from 26.07.2021.

12. The Judicial Officers in the State shall bring to the notice

of the Registrar (Judicial), the issues / hitches, if any, in

implementing the directions of this Court. In case of

anticipatory bails, the Police Officials shall bring to the notice of

the Public Prosecutor, High Court about their difficulties in

implementing the orders of this Court and the Registrar

(Judicial) and learned Public Prosecutor shall place the same

before this Court by the next date of hearing i.e. 31.08.2021.

13. These directions will be in force until further orders or

suitable Rules are framed in this regard. It is needless to

mention, if any clarification or modification is required for

effective implementation, they will be examined accordingly on

the next date of hearing.

14. In spite of all odds, determined efforts are required for

achieving the goal. Ways and means have to be found out by

constant thinking and monitoring. It is the responsibility of all

the stakeholders to uphold the public confidence in the justice

delivery system by giving timely justice which includes

furnishing the copies of orders/judgments.

15. Post on 31.08.2021.

 ___________________________

 LALITHA KANNEGANTI, J

22nd July, 2021

PVD 

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THE HON’BLE SMT. JUSTICE LALITHA KANNEGANTI

CRIMINAL PETITION No.3933 of 2021

22nd July, 2021

PVD